2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets (Series A, Series B, Series C and Series D) with Full Explanation for BPSC Teacher 2023 TGT, PGT, PRT Set A/B/C/D for Computer Science.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 41-50]/ Series B [ 63-72]/ Series C [ 2-11]/ Series D [ 25-34]
1. Which of the following is a technique that marks the beginning of computer communications?
(A) User Environment
(B) Batch Environment
(C) Time Sharing
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Time Sharing
Explanation: The answer is Time Sharing. In Time Sharing, Users were able to interact with the computer and could share its Information processing Resources.
2. Which language is better for writing structured code?
(A) PASCAL
(B) FORTRAN
(C) BASIC
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) PASCAL
Explanation: PASCAL language is more suited to a Structured Program. Pascal is an Imperative and Procedural Programming Language, which Niklaus Wirth designed in 1968–69 and published in 1970, as a Small, Efficient language intended to encourage good programming practices using Structured Programming and Data Structuring. It is named in honor of the French Mathematician, philosopher, and physicist Blaise Pascal.
3. Which language does a browser use to display information from the World Wide Web?
(A) Machine code
(B) Assembly language
(C) C++
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the Above
Explanation: Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is the Standard Markup Language for creating Web Pages and Web Applications. With Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) and JavaScript, it forms a triad of cornerstone technologies for the World Wide Web.
4. Select the True Statement for Compiler.
(A) The input of the Compiler is the Source Program.
(B) It translates the Source Code into Object Code as a whole.
(C) The output of the Compiler is Object Code.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The Compiler is the Translator that Compiles and Translates the Whole Source code written in Middle-Level Languages and High-Level Languages into the Object Code where the whole Source Code is Compiled and Translated in One go, means at a time.
5. _____ is used to shift processes so they are contiguous, and all free memory is in one block.
(A) Fragmentation
(B) Compaction
(C) External Fragmentation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Compaction
Explanation: Compaction is the process of shifting processes, so they are contiguous, and all free Memory is in one block. This process removes or decreases the amount of External Fragmentation.
6. Which of the following is not a valid variable name in most programming languages?
(A) myVariable
(B) 123Variable
(C) _myVariable
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 123Varibale
Explanation: The Name of the Variable must begin with a Letter (Other Than Digits) and an Underscore.
Rules:
- Names can contain letters, digits, and underscores.
- Names must begin with a letter or an underscore (_)
- Names are case sensitive (myVariable and myvariable are different variables)
- Names cannot contain whitespaces or special characters like!, #, %, etc.
- Reserved words [ Keywords] (such as int) cannot be used as names.
7. Secondary Memory is the long-term store for programs and data while Main Memory holds Programs and Data currently in use. What kind of an organization is this?
(A) Physical
(B) Logical
(C) Structural
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Physical
Explanation: Secondary Memory is the long-term store for Programs and Data while Main Memory holds Programs and Data currently in use. This is a Physical Organization.
8. If a Semicolon is not used at the end of the statement, what message will be displayed by C++?
(A) Semicolon missing
(B) Statement missing
(C) Error in statements
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Statement Missing
Explanation: “Statement Missing” is an Error Message that is generated by the C Compiler when it encounters a code construct that is not a valid Statement. This can happen when a Programmer forgets to include a Semicolon at the end of a line of Code, or when there is a Syntax Error in the Code. The Error Message will typically include the Line number where the Error was found, so the Programmer can go to that line and fix the Problem.
9. A set of libraries that provides programmatically access to some kind of graphics 2D functions is
(A) Graphics package
(B) Formatting package
(C) Animation package
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Graphics Package
Explanation: A set of libraries that provide programmatically access to some kind of graphics 2D functions comes under the graphics package.
10. Which shortcut key is used to compile and run the program in C++?
(A) Alt+F9
(B) Alt+F5
(C) Ctrl+F9
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Ctrl+ F9
Explanation: You can use Ctrl+F9 keys directly to Compile and Run the program. Alt+ F9 is used to Compile the Code only. Alt+ F5 is used to open the Output Screen.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 51-60]/ Series B [ 73-82]/ Series C [ 12-21]/ Series D [ 35-44]
11. What does the control unit generate to control other units?
(A) Timing signals
(B) Command signals
(C) Control signals
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Timing signals
Explanation: The Control Unit controls other Units by generating timing signals. These signals help synchronize the activities of different Units in a Computer System, and they ensure that the data is available at the right time and the right place.
12. Which of the following is user user-defined header file extension used in C++?
(A) hg
(B) cpp
(C) h
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) h
Explanation: . h extensions are used for user-defined header files. To include a user defined header file, one should use #include” name.
13. The most common addressing technique employed by a CPU is
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The most common addressing techniques employed by a CPU is
1. Immediate Addressing
2. Direct Addressing
3. Indirect Addressing
4. Register Addressing
Explanation:
Immediate Addressing: It is an instruction format that directly includes the data to be acted on as part of the instruction. This form of operand access simplifies the instruction execution cycle since no additional fetches are required.
Direct Addressing: In this addressing, the address directly specifies the memory or the registers carrying the operand.
Indirect Addressing: In indirect addressing, it contains the address of the address of the location of the operand.
Register Addressing: It contains the address of the data to be fetched from the CPU or the address of the data that is to be fed to the CPU.
14. What will happen if the following C++ statement is compiled and executed?
int *ptr = NULL;
delete ptr;
(A) The program is not semantically correct
(B) The program is compiled and executed successfully
(C) The program gives a compile-time error
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) The program is compiled and executed successfully
Explanation: The above statement is syntactically and semantically correct as C++ allows the programmer to delete a NULL pointer, therefore, the program is compiled and executed successfully.
15. In various devices, _____ are used to overcome the difference in data transfer speed.
(A) multiple buses
(B) buffer registers
(C) speed-enhancing circuitries
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) buffer registers
Explanation: By using Buffer Registers, the Processor sends the Data to the I/O device at the processor speed, and the data gets stored in the Buffer. After that, the data gets sent to or from the Buffer to the devices at the device speed.
16. What do we use to extend the connectivity of the processor bus?
(A) PCI bus
(B) Multiple bus
(C) SCSI bus
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) PCI bus
Explanation: The PCI BUS is used as an extension of the processor BUS and devices connected to it, are like connected to the Processor itself.
17. In memory mapped I/O
(A) the I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
(B) the I/O devices have a separate address space
(C) the memory and I/O devices have an associated address space
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) the I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
Explanation: Memory-mapped I/O uses the same address space to address both Main Memory and I/O Devices. The Memory and Registers of the I/O devices are mapped to (associated with) address values, so a Memory address may refer to either a portion of Physical RAM or to Memory and Registers of the I/O device.
18. What is the addressing called that is used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y?
(A) Indirect
(B) Index
(C) Absolute
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Absolute means Direct
Explanation: In this Addressing Mode, the address of the location of the Operand is given explicitly as a part of the Instruction. This type of addressing is also known as Direct Addressing Mode. Here, ADD X, Y represents Direct Addressing Mode.
19. Which of the following correctly declares an array in C++?
(A) array{10};
(B) int array;
(C) int array[10];
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) int array[10];
Explanation: Array variables are declared identically to variables of their data type, except that the variable name is followed by one pair of square [ ] brackets for each dimension of the array.
20. SQL views are also known as
(A) simple tables
(B) virtual tables
(C) complex tables
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) virtual tables
Explanation: A view is also known as a virtual table because it contains rows and columns like a real table. It shows the table interface but cannot be stored in a database.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 61-70]/ Series B [ 83-92]/ Series C [ 22-31]/ Series D [ 45-54]
21. How many primary keys can be there in a table?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Depends on number of columns
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation: The data in a Specific Column is always Unique. A Database Table can only have One Primary Key. It uniquely identifies a Record in a Relational Database Table.
22. What will be the output of the following C++ code?#include<iostream>
#include<string>
using namespace std;
int main(int argc, char const *argv[ ])
{
char s1[6]=“Hello”;
char s2[6]=“World”;
char s3[12]=s1+“ ”+s2;
cout<<s3;
return 0;
}
(A) Hello
(B) World
(C) Error
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Error
Explanation: There is no operation defined for the Addition of Character array in C++ hence the Compiler throws an Error as it does not understand what to do about this Expression.
23. Which of the following is not a constraint in SQL?
(A) Primary key
(B) Not null
(C) Union
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Union
Explanation: There are 6 Constraints in SQL:
- NOT NULL Constraint.
- UNIQUE Constraint.
- DEFAULT Constraint.
- CHECK Constraint.
- PRIMARY KEY Constraint.
- FOREIGN KEY Constraint.
24. Which of the following is not a valid aggregate function?
(A) COUNT
(B) COMPUTE
(C) SUM
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) COMPUTE
Explanation: The following are the valid SQL Aggregate Functions-
- AVG() – returns the average of a set.
- COUNT() – returns the number of items in a set.
- MAX() – returns the maximum value in a set.
- MIN() – returns the minimum value in a set.
- SUM() – returns the sum of all or distinct values in a set.
25. Who is the father of computer?
(A) James Gosling
(B) Charles Babbage
(C) Dennis Ritchie
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Charles Babbage
Explanation: Charles Babbage is known as the Father of Computers. Charles Babbage Designed and Built the First Mechanical Computer and Difference Engine. James Gosling OC (born 19 May 1955) is a Canadian Computer Scientist, best known as the Founder and Lead Designer behind the Java Programming Language. Dennis MacAlistair Ritchie (September 9, 1941 – c. October 12, 2011) was an American Computer Scientist. He is most well-known for creating the C Programming Language and, with long-time colleague Ken Thompson, the Unix Operating System, and B Programming Language.
26. If we have not specified ASC or DESC after an SQL ORDER BY clause, which of the following is used by default?
(A) DESC
(B) ASC
(C) There is no default value
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) ASC
Explanation: If we have not specified any sorting with the ORDER BY clause, SQL always uses the ASC as a default sorting order.
27. In IA-32 architecture along with the general flags, which of the following conditional flags is provided?
(A) TF
(B) IOPL
(C) IF
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation:
Conditional flags in IA-32 architecture
The IA-32 Architecture, also known as the x86 Architecture, is a widely used Computer Architecture that forms the basis for most of the Modern Desktop and Server Processors. In addition to the general flags, which are used for various purposes, there are several conditional flags provided in the IA-32 architecture.
1. TF (Trap Flag)
The TF flag is a Conditional Flag that controls the operation of the Processor’s Single-step Mode. When the TF flag is set, the processor operates in single-step mode, which means that it executes one instruction at a time and then generates an interrupt. This is commonly used for Debugging purposes, allowing developers to step through their code and examine the state of the processor at each step.
2. IOPL (I/O Privilege Level)
The IOPL flag is a Conditional Flag that determines the Privilege Level at which I/O Operations can be performed. It has Two Bits, which can be set to either 0, 1, 2, or 3. The IOPL flag is used in conjunction with the IOPL field in the EFLAGS register to control access to I/O Instructions. Higher privilege levels (larger IOPL values) have more access to I/O Instructions, while lower privilege levels have Restricted Access.
3. IF (Interrupt Flag)
The IF flag is a Conditional Flag that controls the Generation of Interrupts. When the IF flag is set, Interrupts are enabled, and the processor can respond to external interrupts. On the other hand, when the IF flag is cleared, interrupts are disabled, and the processor ignores external interrupts. The IF flag is often used to control the handling of interrupts in a system.
Conclusion
In the IA-32 Architecture, along with the general flags, which are used for various purposes, the conditional flags provided include the TF (Trap Flag), IOPL (I/O Privilege Level), and IF (Interrupt Flag). These flags play a Crucial Role in controlling the behavior of the processor, such as enabling single-step mode, managing I/O privilege levels, and controlling the generation of interrupts.
28. Which of the following is true about the HAVING clause?
(A) Similar to the WHERE clause but is used for columns rather than groups
(B) Similar to WHERE clause but is used for rows rather than columns
(C) Similar to WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Similar to WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows
Explanation: The Having Clause is used instead of where when aggregate function is to be applied on the set of data means Group. For Example,
SELECT department_id “Department Code”,
COUNT(*) “No of Employees”
FROM employees
29. The method of accessing the I/O devices by repeatedly checking the status flags is
(A) program-controlled I/O
(B) memory-mapped I/O
(C) I/O-mapped I/O
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) program-controlled I/O
Explanation: Program-controlled I/O is a method of accessing I/O devices by repeatedly checking the status flags. In this method, the CPU checks the status of the I/O device and waits for it to become ready. Once the device is ready, the CPU transfers data to or from the device.
30. _____ clause creates temporary relation for the query on which it is defined.
(A) WITH
(B) FROM
(C) WHERE
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) WITH
Explanation: The with clause provides a way of defining a temporary relation whose definition is available only to the query in which the with clause occurs.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 71-80]/ Series B [ 93-102]/ Series C [ 32-41]/ Series D [ 55-64]
31. The SQL statement SELECT ROUND (65.726, -1) FROM DUAL; prints.
(A) 70
(B) garbage
(C) 726
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 70
Explanation: Here, the ROUND() Function Statement will produce the Rounded Result of the given Number 65.726 from the Left (because -1 is given) of Decimal point up to 1.
32. The matrix contains m rows and n columns. The matrix is called Sparse Matrix if:
(A) total number of zero elements > (m*n)/2
(B) total number of zero elements = m+n
(C) total number of zero elements = m/n
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) total number of zero elements > (m*n)/2
Explanation: For a Matrix to be a Sparse Matrix, it should contain Zero elements more than the non-zero elements. Total elements of the given matrix are m*n. So, if Total number of Zero elements > (m*n)/2, then the matrix is called Sparse Matrix.
33. _____ command makes the updates performed by the transaction permanent in the database.
(A) ROLLBACK
(B) COMMIT
(C) TRUNCATE
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) COMMIT
Explanation: Commit Command is used to permanently save any Transaction into the Database.
34. Which of the following is the basic approach for joining tables?
(A) Union JOIN
(B) Natural JOIN
(C) Subqueries
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: We already know that Union and Natural are the approaches for joining two or more tables. A subquery is a query nested into another SQL query. It can be embedded with SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE statements.
35. What is the time complexity of an infix to postfix conversion algorithm?
(A) O (N log N)
(B) O (N)
(C) O (N2)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) O (N)
Explanation: The Time Complexity of an Infix to Postfix Expression Conversion Algorithm is Mathematically found to be O(N) means Linear Complexity.
36. Which of the following is the advantage of the array data structure?
(A) Elements of mixed data types can be stored
(B) Easier to access the elements in an array
(C) Index of the first element starts from 1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Easier to access the elements in an array
Explanation: The Elements in an Array are stored in a contiguous block of Memory, so it is easier to access the Elements of an Array through indexing where the Index/ Subscript is started from 0 and goes to MAXSIZE-1.
37. Which data structure is mainly used for implementing the recursive algorithm?
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Binary tree
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Stack
Explanation: Recursion is implemented using Stack because activation records are to be stored in LIFO order i.e. Last In First Out.
38. What is the postfix expression for the corresponding infix expression? a+ b* c+ (d*e)
(A) abc * + de * +
(B) abc + * de * +
(C) a+ bc * de+ *
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) abc * + de * +
Explanation: Using the infix to postfix expression conversion algorithm, the corresponding postfix expression is found to be abc*+de*+.
39. Which one of the following is not the type of queue?
(A) Linear queue
(B) Circular queue
(C) Double-ended queue
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: There are Four different types of Queues:
- Simple Queue.
- Circular Queue.
- Priority Queue.
- Double Ended Queue.
40. The necessary condition to be checked before deletion from the queue is
(A) overflow
(B) underflow
(C) rear value
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) underflow
Explanation: The answer is B, i.e., Underflow. Before deleting an Element from the Queue, we first need to check whether the Queue is empty or not.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 81-90]/ Series B [ 103-112]/ Series C [ 42-51]/ Series D [ 65-74]
41. After performing following set of operations, what does the final list look contain?
InsertFront(10);
InsertFront(20);
InsertRear(30);
DeleteFront( );
InsertRear(40);
InsertRear(10);
DeleteRear( );
InsertRear(15);
display( );
(A) 10 30 10 15
(B) 20 30 40 15
(C) 10 30 40 15
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) 10 30 40 15
Explanation: Do It Yourself
42. A linear data structure in which insertion and deletion operations can be performed from both the ends is:
(A) queue
(B) circular queue
(C) deque
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) deque
Explanation: A deque is a Double-Ended Queue in which Elements can be both Inserted and Deleted from either the Left or the Right end of the Queue. A deque is a collection of Linked Memory Blocks where each memory block contains many elements.
43. If circular queue is implemented using array having size MAX_SIZE in which array index starts with 0, front points to the first element in the queue, and rear points to the last element in the queue. Which one of the following conditions is used to specify that the circular queue is empty?
(A) Front=rear= -1
(B) Front=rear=0
(C) Front=rear +1
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Front=rear= -1
Explanation: In a Circular Queue, when the value of both the front and the rear variables are -1 then it is said that the Circular Queue is Empty.
44. What is the functionality of the following piece of code?
public void fun(int x)
{
q1.offer(x);
}
(A) Perform push( ) with push as the costlier operation
(B) Perform push( ) with pop as the costlier operation
(C) Perform pop( ) with push as the costlier operation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Perform push( ) with pop as the costlier operation
Explanation: offer() suggest that it is a push() operation, but we see that it is performed with only One Queue, hence the pop() operation is costlier.
45. Which one of the following techniques is not used in the binary tree?
(A) Randomized traversal
(B) Preorder traversal
(C) Postorder traversal
(D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Randomized traversal
Explanation: The Binary Tree Provides Four Type of Traversal –
Level By Level Traversal, Pre Order Traversal (NLR), In Order Traversal (LNR) and Post Order Traversal (LRN).
46. Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?
(A) Minimum duplication and redundancy of data
(B) High-level of security
(C) Single-user access only
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Single-user access only
Explanation: Single-user Access only” is not a feature of DBMS. DBMS allows multiple Users to access and manipulate the Database Concurrently. It provides Mechanisms to handle Concurrent Access and ensure Data Consistency and Integrity among Multiple Users.
47. Which of the following statements is not true about the doubly linked list?
(A) We can traverse in both the directions.
(B) It requires extra space.
(C) Implementation of doubly linked list is easier than the singly linked list.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Implementation of doubly linked list is easier than the singly linked list.
Explanation: A Doubly Linked list has Two Pointers ‘left’ and ‘right’ which enable it to traverse in either direction. Compared to Singly Linked List which has only a ‘next’ Pointer, Doubly Linked List requires extra space to store this extra pointer. Every Insertion and Deletion requires the Manipulation of Two Pointers; hence it takes a bit longer time. Implementing Doubly Linked List involves setting both left and right pointers to correct Nodes and takes more time than Singly Linked List.
48. The values appearing in given attributes of any tuple in the referencing relation must likewise occur in specified attributes of at least one tuple in the referenced relation, according to _____ integrity constraint.
(A) referential
(B) primary
(C) referencing
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) referential
Explanation: A Referential Integrity Constraint requires that the values appearing in specified Attributes of any Tuple in the referencing Relation also appear in specified Attributes of at least one Tuple in the Referenced Relation.
49. Which of the following options is not true about the binary search tree?
(A) The value of the left child should be less than the root node.
(B) The value of the right child should be greater than the root node.
(C) The left and right subtrees should also be a binary search tree.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: A Binary Search Tree is a Binary Tree with a special property called the BST-Property, which is given as follows: ⋆ For all nodes x and y, if y belongs to the Left Subtree of x, then the Key at y is less than the Key at x, and if y belongs to the Right Subtree of x, then the Key at y is greater than the Key at x. In Simple Words, the value of left node must be smaller than the parent node, and the value of right node must be greater than the parent node.
50. The expression Y=AB+BC+AC shows the _____ operation.
(A) EX-OR
(B) SOP
(C) POS
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) SOP
Explanation: The given expression has the operation product as well as the sum of that. So, it shows SOP operation.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 91-100]/ Series B [ 113-122]/ Series C [ 52-61]/ Series D [ 75-84]
51. What are the canonical forms of Boolean expressions?
(A) OR and XOR
(B) NOR and XNOR
(C) SOM and POM
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) SOM and POM
Explanation: There are two kinds of Canonical Forms for a Boolean Expression-> 1) Sum of Min-Terms (SOM) form and 2) Product of Maxterms (POM) Form.
52. Derive the Boolean expression for the logic circuit shown below:
![Logic Circuit Logic Circuit](https://computerskills.in/wp-content/uploads/2023/08/image-5.png)
(A) C (A+ B) DE
(B) [ C (A+B) D+E’]
(C) [[ C (A+B) D] E’]
(D) More than one of the above
(E) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) C (A+ B) DE
Explanation: A and B are passing through the OR Gate so (A+B) is the First Result, In this result, C is passed with the AND Gate so the Expression Becomes C(A+B) as the Second Result. Now, D is passed with the AND Gate, so the Expression becomes C(A+B) D as the Third Result. Finally, E is passed with the AND Gate, that makes the expression C (A+ B) DE.
53. Boolean algebra can be used:
(A) for designing the digital computers
(B) in building logic symbols
(C) in circuit theory
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) for designing the digital computers
Explanation: For designing digital computers and building different electronic circuits Boolean Algebra is accepted widely.
54. What does the control unit generate to control other units?
(A) Transfer signals
(B) Command signals
(C) Control signals
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Control signals
Explanation: Control signals are generated by the control unit to control the operations of other units in a computer system.
55. To display time in railway stations which digital circuit is used?
(A) Seven-segment decoder
(B) Eight-segment encoder
(C) 8: 3 multiplexer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Seven-segment decoder
Explanation: A Seven Segment Decoder is a Digital Circuit which is used to construct a common type of Digital Display device i.e., a set of LED (or LCD) segments that display numbers from 0 through 9 at the command of a Four-bit Code.
56. What kind of transmission medium is most appropriate to carry data in a computer network that is exposed to electrical interference?
(A) Unshielded twisted pair
(B) Optical fiber
(C) Coaxial cable
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Optical fiber
Explanation: Optical Fiber is the transmission power channel for Data in such a Computer Network that is subject to Electromagnetic Interference. Glass or Plastic Fiber Optics are used.
57. Which network topology requires a central controller or hub?
(A) Star
(B) Mesh
(C) Ring
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Star
Explanation: Star Topology is a Network Topology where each Individual piece of a Network is attached to a Central Node (often called a Hub or Switch).
58. A collection of hyperlinked documents on the Internet forms the
(A) World Wide Web (WWW)
(B) e-mail system
(C) mailing list
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) World Wide Web (WWW)
Explanation: The Collection of Links (Hyperlinks) throughout the Internet creates an Interconnected Network called the World Wide Web, WWW, and Web or W3. WWW is a Web where Documents and other Web resources are identified by Uniform Resource Locators (URL).
59. Which of the following is not a step in the Header translation procedure?
(A) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 address by extracting the rightmost 32 bits
(B) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded
(C) The IPv6 flow label is considered
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) The IPv6 flow label is considered
Explanation: In the Header Translation Procedure, first the IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 address by extracting the Rightmost 32Bits, then the value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded, and finally the ToS field in the IPv4 header is set to zero. IPv6 flow label is ignored in the procedure.
60. Which one of the following would breach the integrity of a system?
(A) Locking the room to prevent theft
(B) Full access rights for all users
(C) Fitting the system with an anti-theft device
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Full access rights for all users
Explanation: Granting Full access Rights to all Users in the Library would compromise the Integrity of the System. It means that every User would have Unrestricted Access to all Resources and Data in the Library System, which could lead to Unauthorized Modifications, Deletions, or misuse of Information.
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 101-110]/ Series B [ 123-132]/ Series C [ 62-71]/ Series D [ 85-94]
61. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of medium?
(A) Logical link control sublayer
(B) Media access control sublayer
(C) Network interface control sublayer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Media access control sublayer
Explanation: Media Access Control (MAC) deals with the transmission of data Packets to and from the Network-Interface Card, and also to and from another remotely shared Channel.
62. Which one of the following is not a network topology?
(A) Peer-to-peer
(B) Ring
(C) Bus
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Peer-to-peer
Explanation: Topologies include Bus/Linear Topology, Ring/ Circular Topology, Tree/ Extended Bus Topology, Star Topology, Mesh/ Fully Connected Topology, and Hybrid Topology.
63. How do structures and classes in C++ differ?
(A) Structures by default hide every member whereas classes do not
(B) In structures, members are public by default, whereas, in classes, they are private by default
(C) Structures cannot have private members, whereas classes can have
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) In structures, members are public by default, whereas, in classes, they are private by default
Explanation: Members of Structure are public by default whereas, class Members are private by default. Both can have private and public members.
64. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes-
(A) SMTP client
(B) SMTP server
(C) peer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) SMTP client
Explanation: SMTP Clients are the Entities that send mails to other mail Servers. The SMTP Servers cannot send independent mails to other SMTP Servers as an SMTP Server. There are no masters or peers in SMTP as it is based on the client-server Architecture.
65. The length of an IPv6 address is-
(A) 32 bits
(B) 64 bits
(C) 256 bits
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: An IPv6 Address is 128 bits in Length and consists of Eight, 16-bit fields, with each field bounded by a colon. Each field must contain a Hexadecimal Number, in contrast to the dotted-decimal notation of IPv4 addresses.
66. What is the use of ios::trunc mode?
(A) To open a file in input mode
(B) To open a file in output mode
(C) To truncate an existing file to zero
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) To truncate an existing file to zero
Explanation: In C++ File Handling, ios::trunc Mode is used to Truncate an existing File to Zero Length.
67. Which layer of the TCP/IP stack corresponds to the OSI model transport layer?
(A) Host-to-host
(B) Application
(C) Internet
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Host-to-host
Explanation: The Four Layers of the TCP/IP Stack (also called the DoD Model) are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host Layer is equivalent to the Transport Layer of the OSI Model.
68. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is not possible to combine two or more files opening mode in open( ) method.
2. It is possible to combine two or more files opening mode in open( ) method.
3. ios::in and ios::out are input and output file opening modes respectively.
(A) 1, 3
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3 only
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 1, 3
Explanation: C++ allows to use one or more File opening Mode in a Single open() method. ios::in and ios::out are Input and Output File opening Mode respectively.
69. Which of the following is true with regard to the ping command?
(A) Ping stands for Packet Internet Generator.
(B) The ping command checks the port level connectivity between source destinations endpoints.
(C) Ping summarizes the packet loss and round-trip delay between two IP endpoints.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Ping summarizes the packet loss and round-trip delay between two IP endpoints.
Explanation: Ping summarizes the Packet Loss and Round-trip Delay between Two IP End Points. Even though your ping is good you may still be having issues with Packet Loss. Although the Data is being sent and ultimately received quickly by the destination Server, some data might not be getting there correctly.
70. The correct statement for a function that takes pointer to a float, a pointer to a pointer to a char and returns a pointer to a pointer to an integer is –
(A) int **fun(float **, char **)
(B) int *fun(float *, char *)
(C) int **fun(float *, char **)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) int **fun(float *, char **)
Explanation: Function that takes Pointer to a float, a Pointer to a Pointer to a char and returns a Pointer to a Pointer to a integer is int **fun(float*, char**).
2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key All Sets – Series A [ 111-120]/ Series B [ 133-142]/ Series C [ 72-81]/ Series D [ 95-104]
71. The private key in asymmetric key cryptography is kept by
(A) sender
(B) receiver
(C) sender and receiver
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) receiver
Explanation: The Private Key is kept only by the Receiver of the Message. Its aim is to make sure that only the intended Receiver can decipher the Message.
72. What will be the output of the following C++ code?#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
long factorial (long a)
{
if (a>1)
return (a * factorial (a+1));
else
return(1);
}
int main( )
{
long num = 3;
cout <<num<<“!=”><”!=”<<factorial(num);
return 0;
}
A) 6
(B) 24
(C) Segmentation fault
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Segmentation fault
Explanation: why this error because,
- Core Dump/Segmentation fault is a specific kind of error caused by accessing memory that “does not belong to you.”
- When a piece of code tries to do read and write operation in a read only location in memory or freed block of memory, it is known as core dump.
73. Which of the following features must be supported by any programming language to become a pure object-oriented programming language?
(A) Encapsulation
(B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: It is necessary for a Programming Language that it must support all Three Features as Encapsulation, Inheritance, and Polymorphism completely to become a Pure Object-Oriented Language.
74. Which is correct syntax of inheritance?
(A) class base_classname : access derived_classname {/*define class body*/};
(B) class derived_classname : access base_classname {/*define class body*/};
(C) class derived_classname : base_classname {/*define class body*/};
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) class derived_classname : base_classname {/*define class body*/};
Explanation: Firstly, keyword class should come, followed by the derived class name. Colon is must followed by access in which base class has to be derived, followed by the base class name. And finally the body of class. Semicolon after the body is also must.
75. Which one of the following is the correct definition of “is_array( );” function in C++?
(A) It checks that the specified variable is of the array or not
(B) It checks that the specified array is of single dimension or not
(C) It checks that the specified array is of multi-dimension or not
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) It checks that the specified variable is of the array or not
Explanation: In C++, the “is_array();” is used for checking that the specified Element or Data Item belongs to the Array type or not.
76. Which of the following statements is correct about the class?
(A) An object is an instance of its class.
(B) A class is an instance of its object.
(C) An object is the instance of the data type of that class.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) An object is an instance of its class.
Explanation: An Object is instance of its Class. It can be declared in the same way that a variable is declared, only thing is you must use class name as the data type.
77. Which of the following can be used to create an abstract class in the C++ programming language?
(A) By using the pure virtual function in the class
(B) By declaring a virtual function in the base class
(C) By declaring the virtual keyword afterward the class declaration
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) By using the pure virtual function in the class
Explanation: Abstract class should have at least one Pure Virtual Function. Therefore, to declare an Abstract Class one should declare a Pure Virtual Function in a Class.
78. Which of the following statements is correct about the C++ programming language?
(A) In C++, both the static and dynamic types checking are allowed.
(B) In C++, member function are allowed to be of the type const.
(C) In C++, dynamic checking is allowed.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) In C++, both the static and dynamic types checking are allowed.
Explanation: C++ allows both Static and Dynamic type checking i.e. types are checked by the Compiler.
79. Which feature of OOP is indicated by the following code?
class student
{
int marks;
};
class topper: public student
{
int age; topper(int age)
{
this.age=age;
}
};
(A) Encapsulation and inheritance
(B) Inheritance and polymorphism
(C) Polymorphism
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Encapsulation and inheritance
Explanation: class topper having the member variable and constructor both. So, there is Encapsulation. The class topper is the inherited/ child class of the Base/Parent class student, that is indicating Inheritance.
80. Which of the following natural elements is the primary element in computer chips?
(A) Carbon
(B) Silicon
(C) Iron
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Silicon
Explanation: Silicon is the Primary element in Computer Chips. Silicon is a highly pure Element which is now perfect for the Massive Computer Chip Industry.
Other Important MCQs
Top 150 Basic Computer Organization MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)
Computer Fundamentals – Basic Computer Organization [Chapter1]
Other Quizzes that must be attempted
Top 35 Computer Fundamental MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) – Quiz1
Top 35 Computer Fundamental MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) – Quiz2
Top 35 Computer Fundamental MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) – Quiz3
One thought on “2023 BPSC Teacher Answer Key, TGT, PGT, PRT Set A/B/C/D with Answer Key and Explanation”